The Ultimate Study Guide for the ServSafe Manager Exam

Preparing for the ServSafe Manager exam can feel daunting, but with the right resources and focused study, you can confidently pass and earn your certification. This comprehensive study guide is designed to help you master the key concepts of food safety, ensuring you’re well-prepared for the exam and, more importantly, for managing food safety in a real-world foodservice environment.

The ServSafe Manager certification is widely recognized and respected in the food industry. It demonstrates that you have the knowledge and skills necessary to protect the public from foodborne illness. The exam and accompanying course focus on six critical areas of food safety management in commercial restaurants. This study guide mirrors that structure, providing you with targeted practice and in-depth explanations.

This guide is divided into the same six core categories as the ServSafe Manager curriculum:

1. Foodborne Microorganisms & Allergens
2. Personal Hygiene
3. Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage
4. Preparation, Cooking, and Serving
5. Facilities, Cleaning/Sanitizing, and Pest Management
6. Regulatory Authorities

By organizing the study guide in this way, you can pinpoint your strengths and weaknesses. Each section below is presented in a practice test format, complete with detailed explanations for each answer. This method allows you to actively engage with the material and immediately understand the reasoning behind correct food safety practices.

When you identify areas where you need more work, you can then focus your study using the official ServSafe Manager textbook, online courses, or training videos. This targeted approach will maximize your study efficiency and ensure you are fully prepared for the exam. Let’s begin with the first section: Foodborne Microorganisms & Allergens.

Foodborne Microorganisms & Allergens (49 Questions)

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Question 1
What pathogen is the greatest risk found in raw chicken?
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B
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C
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D

Question 1 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Salmonella

Salmonella is indeed the pathogen most significantly associated with raw chicken. Salmonella bacteria are commonly found in the intestines of poultry and can contaminate chicken meat during processing. Infection with Salmonella can lead to salmonellosis, causing symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, fever, headache, chills, and general weakness.

To prevent Salmonella outbreaks in your restaurant, strict adherence to food safety protocols is crucial:

• Thorough Cooking: Cook chicken to an internal temperature of 165°F (74°C) as measured with a food thermometer. This temperature effectively destroys Salmonella bacteria.
• Prevent Cross-Contamination: Use separate cutting boards, utensils, and surfaces for raw chicken and ready-to-eat foods. Wash hands thoroughly after handling raw chicken.
• Sanitary Practices: Maintain a clean and sanitized kitchen environment. Regularly clean and sanitize all surfaces that come into contact with raw chicken.

Alt text: Raw chicken pieces on a cutting board, a visual reminder of the importance of safe food handling to prevent Salmonella contamination in food service.

Question 2
The “Danger Zone” for biological growth in food is defined as:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 2 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) 41°F to 135°F

The “Danger Zone” is the temperature range between 41°F and 135°F (5°C to 57°C). Within this temperature range, bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens multiply rapidly. Time-temperature abuse, which occurs when food is left in the Danger Zone for too long, is a leading cause of foodborne illness.

To minimize the risk of bacterial growth:

• Limit Time in the Danger Zone: Minimize the time that potentially hazardous foods spend in the Danger Zone.
• Temperature Control: Keep cold foods cold (below 41°F) and hot foods hot (above 135°F).
• Proper Cooling and Heating: Cool hot foods quickly and reheat them to safe temperatures.

Question 3
The three categories of food contaminants are best described as:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 3 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Chemical, Biological, and Physical Hazards

Food contaminants are broadly categorized into three main types:

• Biological Hazards: These include pathogens like bacteria, viruses, parasites, and fungi (mold). They are the leading cause of foodborne illnesses.
• Chemical Hazards: These include cleaning supplies, pesticides, toxins (like those in certain seafood), and metals.
• Physical Hazards: These are foreign objects that can accidentally get into food, such as hair, dirt, glass shards, metal shavings, bones, and jewelry.

Understanding these categories is essential for implementing effective food safety measures and preventing contamination at every stage of food handling.

Question 4
Foods that have a water activity of 0.85 or above are considered:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 4 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Potentially hazardous foods

Foods with a water activity (a_w) of 0.85 or greater are classified as potentially hazardous foods (PHFs), also known as Time/Temperature Control for Safety foods (TCS foods). Water activity measures the amount of unbound water available in a food for microbial growth. A water activity of 0.85 or higher creates an environment conducive to the rapid growth of bacteria, yeasts, and molds.

Examples of PHFs/TCS foods include:

• Meat, poultry, and seafood
• Dairy products
• Eggs
• Cooked plant-based foods (like cooked rice and beans)
• Cut leafy greens and melons

These foods require careful time and temperature control to prevent foodborne illness.

Question 5
The presence of microorganisms is a form of:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 5 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Biological Hazard

Microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, parasites, and molds, are biological entities. Their presence in food constitutes a biological hazard. These microorganisms can cause foodborne illness if they are pathogenic and present in sufficient numbers in food that is consumed. Effective food safety practices aim to control and eliminate these biological hazards to ensure food safety.

Question 6
Bacteria, viruses, parasites, and mold are all causes of foodborne illnesses. What is the other cause of foodborne illnesses?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 6 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Toxic contamination

While bacteria, viruses, parasites, and molds are major biological causes of foodborne illnesses, toxic contamination is another significant category. This refers to illnesses caused by harmful substances that are not living organisms, such as:

• Chemical Contaminants: Pesticides, cleaning chemicals, heavy metals.
• Natural Toxins: Mycotoxins (from molds), seafood toxins (like ciguatera or scombrotoxin), plant toxins (in some mushrooms).

Option A (Inherently poisonous foods) is a subcategory of natural toxins, and Option B (Foods with common allergens) relates to allergic reactions, not foodborne illnesses in the same way. Allergic reactions are immune responses, not caused by pathogens or toxins in the same manner as foodborne illnesses. Therefore, Toxic contamination is the most encompassing answer for the other main cause of foodborne illness beyond the biological agents listed.

Question 7
The pathogen most associated with undercooked beef, especially hamburger, is:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 7 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) E. Coli

Escherichia coli (E. coli), particularly the strain E. coli O157:H7, is strongly linked to undercooked beef, especially ground beef (hamburger). E. coli O157:H7 is a potent bacterium that can cause severe illness, including hemorrhagic colitis (bloody diarrhea) and hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), a serious kidney condition, especially in children and the elderly.

Prevention strategies include:

• Cook Beef Thoroughly: Cook ground beef to a minimum internal temperature of 155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds. For whole cuts of beef, the minimum is 145°F (63°C) with a 3-minute rest.
• Avoid Cross-Contamination: Prevent raw beef juices from contaminating other foods, surfaces, and utensils.
• Proper Hygiene: Emphasize handwashing and good personal hygiene practices for food handlers.

Question 8
Foods that are left in the danger zone for more than four hours are most often associated with which type of food borne illness?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 8 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Clostridium perfringens

Clostridium perfringens is frequently associated with foods that have been temperature abused, especially those left in the Danger Zone (41°F to 135°F) for extended periods, particularly beyond four hours. C. perfringens is often called the “cafeteria germ” or “buffet germ” because outbreaks are commonly linked to large quantities of food, such as stews, gravies, and cooked meats, that are cooled too slowly or held at improper temperatures on steam tables or buffets.

To prevent C. perfringens foodborne illness:

• Rapid Cooling: Cool hot foods quickly using proper cooling methods (shallow pans, ice baths, etc.) to get them out of the Danger Zone within the recommended timeframes (2 hours to cool from 135°F to 70°F, and an additional 4 hours to cool from 70°F to 41°F).
• Hot Holding: Hold hot foods at 135°F or higher.
• Limit Time in Danger Zone: Minimize the time foods spend in the Danger Zone during preparation, holding, and cooling.

Question 9
The two categories of microbial induced food borne illness can be described through the following two terms:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 9 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Infection and Intoxication

Microbial foodborne illnesses are generally categorized into two types:

• Foodborne Infection: This occurs when live pathogenic microorganisms are ingested with food and then multiply in the human body, causing illness. Examples of bacteria that cause infections include Salmonella, E. coli O157:H7, Listeria monocytogenes, and Vibrio vulnificus.
• Foodborne Intoxication: This happens when illness is caused by consuming food containing toxins produced by microorganisms. The microorganisms themselves may not need to be alive to cause illness, as the toxins they have produced are the harmful agents. Examples of bacteria that cause intoxications include Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium botulinum, and Bacillus cereus. Some molds and naturally toxic foods also cause intoxications.

Understanding the difference is important because some food safety controls are more effective against preventing infections (like cooking to kill bacteria), while others are more critical for preventing intoxications (like controlling the growth of toxin-producing bacteria).

Question 10
Which of the following is an example of a biological contaminant?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 10 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Norovirus in shellfish

Norovirus is a virus, and viruses are biological entities. Therefore, Norovirus in shellfish is a biological contaminant.

Let’s look at why the other options are not biological contaminants:

• A) Wood shavings in a glass of milk: Wood shavings are a physical contaminant. They are a foreign object.
• B) Dirt on a mushroom: Dirt is also a physical contaminant. While dirt can contain microorganisms, the dirt itself is the physical hazard. The microorganisms in the dirt would be the biological hazard component associated with the dirt.
• D) Bleach in a cup of coffee: Bleach is a chemical contaminant. It’s a chemical substance that is not meant to be in food.

Question 11
Foods that have a pH of 4.6 or above are considered:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 11 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Potentially Hazardous Foods

Foods with a pH of 4.6 or higher are considered potentially hazardous foods (PHFs) or TCS foods. pH is a measure of acidity or alkalinity. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral. Values below 7 are acidic, and values above 7 are alkaline (basic).

Most pathogenic bacteria thrive in a neutral to slightly acidic pH range (around 4.6 to 7.0). Foods with a pH above 4.6 provide a favorable environment for bacterial growth.

• Acidic Foods (Option A) have a pH below 7.0, specifically below 4.6 for food safety purposes.
• Pickled Foods (Option C) are made acidic (pH below 4.6) through processes like fermentation or adding vinegar to prevent bacterial growth.

Therefore, foods above pH 4.6 are the ones of concern for food safety and are classified as PHFs/TCS foods.

Question 12
Salmonella poisoning is most often associated with the following source:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 12 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Under-cooked Eggs and Poultry

Salmonella poisoning is strongly and most commonly associated with under-cooked eggs and poultry products. Poultry can be naturally colonized with Salmonella bacteria, and eggs can become contaminated either internally or externally.

• Pasteurized Milk (Option B): Pasteurization is a heat treatment process that kills Salmonella and other pathogens in milk, making pasteurized milk a safe product within its shelf life. Raw milk, however, can be a source of Salmonella.
• Frozen Butter (Option C): Butter is a dairy product, but frozen butter is not a common source of Salmonella poisoning.
• Hand Made Bread (Option D): Bread is generally not associated with Salmonella.

Question 13
Which of the following is an example of a physical hazard found in food?
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B
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C
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D

Question 13 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Chicken bones

Chicken bones are a classic example of a physical hazard in food. They are solid, tangible objects that can cause injury (like choking or mouth damage) if consumed.

Let’s look at the other options:

• B) Pesticides: Pesticides are chemical hazards. They are chemical substances that can contaminate food.
• C) Mold: Mold is a biological hazard. It’s a type of fungi, a living microorganism.
• D) Cleaning agents: Cleaning agents (like detergents, sanitizers) are chemical hazards. They are chemical substances that are harmful if ingested.

Question 14
Of the bacteria listed, which one is commonly linked to cooked rice?
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B
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C
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D

Question 14 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Bacillus cereus

Bacillus cereus is the bacterium most commonly linked to cooked rice. B. cereus is a spore-forming bacterium. Spores can survive cooking and then germinate and grow in cooked rice that is left at room temperature or improperly cooled. B. cereus produces toxins that cause two types of foodborne illness: emetic (vomiting) and diarrheal types.

To prevent Bacillus cereus food poisoning from rice:

• Cook Rice Properly: Cook rice to a safe internal temperature.
• Hold Hot Rice Hot: If holding cooked rice hot for service, keep it at 135°F (57°C) or higher.
• Cool Rice Rapidly: If rice is not served immediately, cool it down quickly and properly. Do not leave cooked rice at room temperature for extended periods.
• Reheat Rice Properly: Reheat cooled rice thoroughly to 165°F (74°C).

Question 15
Of the following listed food pathogens, which one is most often associated with the consumption of under-cooked or raw seafood?
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B
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C
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D

Question 15 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Vibrio vulnificus

Vibrio vulnificus is a bacterium that is strongly associated with the consumption of undercooked or raw seafood, particularly oysters and other shellfish. Vibrio vulnificus infections can be serious, especially for individuals with underlying health conditions, particularly liver disease, diabetes, or weakened immune systems. Symptoms can include diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and, in severe cases, bloodstream infections (septicemia) and necrotizing fasciitis (“flesh-eating disease”).

While Norovirus (Option B) can also be associated with shellfish, Vibrio vulnificus is more specifically and severely linked to raw or undercooked seafood consumption. Hepatitis C (Option C) is a bloodborne virus and not primarily foodborne. Aspergillus (Option D) is a mold, and while some molds can produce toxins in food, Aspergillus is not the primary pathogen associated with raw seafood consumption in the context of foodborne illness.

Question 16
Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes) is a sign of what food borne illness?
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B
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C
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D

Question 16 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Hepatitis A

Jaundice, characterized by the yellowing of the skin and eyes, is a classic symptom of Hepatitis A. Hepatitis A is a viral liver infection caused by the Hepatitis A virus (HAV). It is often transmitted through the fecal-oral route, meaning it can spread through contaminated food or water, or poor personal hygiene. Food handlers who are infected with Hepatitis A can contaminate food if they don’t wash their hands properly after using the restroom.

Foods commonly associated with Hepatitis A outbreaks include:

• Raw or undercooked shellfish (especially oysters)
• Ready-to-eat foods handled after cooking (salads, sandwiches)
• Fruits and vegetables
• Contaminated water or ice

Question 17
Which of the following is a chemical contaminant?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 17 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Detergent

Detergent is a chemical contaminant. Detergents are cleaning chemicals and are not meant to be ingested. If detergent residue remains on food contact surfaces or gets into food, it can cause chemical contamination and potentially make people sick.

Let’s look at the other options:

• B) Glycerol: Glycerol (also known as glycerin or glycerine) is generally considered non-toxic and is even used as a food additive in some cases (sweetener, humectant). It is not typically considered a food contaminant in the same way as cleaning chemicals.
• C) Unwashed vegetables: Unwashed vegetables are more likely to harbor biological contaminants like bacteria, viruses, and parasites from soil, water, or handling. While they could have chemical contaminants (like pesticide residues), the primary concern with unwashed vegetables is biological.

Question 18
The greatest threat of Salmonella contamination can be traced to which of the following foods?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 18 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Poultry

The greatest threat of Salmonella contamination is most often traced back to poultry products. As mentioned earlier, Salmonella bacteria are commonly found in poultry.

• Flour (Option A): While raw flour has been linked to E. coli outbreaks in recent years, poultry remains the primary food source associated with Salmonella.
• Beef (Option C): Beef, particularly ground beef, is more strongly associated with E. coli O157:H7, not primarily Salmonella.
• Soda (Option D): Soda is not associated with Salmonella contamination.

Question 19
A parasite is best defined as:
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B
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C
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D

Question 19 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) An animal which requires another animal for growth

A parasite is an organism that lives in or on another organism (its host) and benefits by deriving nutrients at the host’s expense. In the context of foodborne illness, parasites are typically microscopic animals that require a host animal (or human) to complete their life cycle and reproduce.

• A) A nonliving entity that transfers DNA: This describes a virus, not a parasite.
• B) A really annoying cook: This is humorous, but not scientifically accurate.
• D) A species of bacteria: Bacteria are microorganisms, but parasites are generally more complex organisms, often protozoa or worms.

Examples of foodborne parasites include Giardia lamblia, Cryptosporidium parvum, Cyclospora cayetanensis, and Anisakis.

Question 20
Anisakis food poisoning is commonly associated with which of the following foods?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 20 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) Wild salmon

Anisakis food poisoning (anisakiasis) is most commonly associated with wild salmon and other types of raw or undercooked fish, especially marine fish like herring, cod, mackerel, and halibut. Anisakis are parasitic worms that can infect fish. When humans consume raw or undercooked fish containing Anisakis larvae, the larvae can burrow into the stomach or intestinal wall, causing symptoms like abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

• Fresh fruit (Option A) and Tofu (Option B) are not associated with Anisakis.
• Raw chicken (Option C) is associated with Salmonella and Campylobacter, not Anisakis.

Freezing fish at -4°F (-20°C) for 7 days (or -31°F (-35°C) until solid and storing at -31°F (-35°C) for 15 hours, or -31°F (-35°C) until solid and storing at -4°F (-20°C) for 24 hours) is an effective way to kill Anisakis larvae in fish intended to be eaten raw (like sushi or sashimi).

Question 21
Of the following listed hazards, which one is considered a biological hazard?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 21 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Sneezing on food

Sneezing on food is a biological hazard. Sneezing can expel droplets containing microorganisms (bacteria, viruses) from the respiratory tract, directly onto food, contaminating it with biological pathogens.

Let’s look at why the other options are not primarily biological hazards:

• B) Mixing chemicals and food: This is a chemical hazard.
• C) Metal shards on a counter: These are physical hazards.
• D) Pesticides in dry storage: Pesticides are chemical hazards.

Question 22
A food borne intoxication occurs when:
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B
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C
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D

Question 22 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Toxins produced by pathogens enter the body

A foodborne intoxication happens when toxins produced by pathogens enter the body through contaminated food. The illness is caused by the toxins themselves, not necessarily by the live microorganisms.

• A) Too much wine is used when cooking: Excessive wine might affect the taste of food, but it doesn’t cause foodborne intoxication. Alcohol in wine is not a toxin produced by pathogens in the context of foodborne illness.
• B) Parasites enter the bloodstream: Parasites generally cause foodborne infections, not intoxications. They need to establish themselves in the body to cause illness.
• D) Bleach is accidentally added to the food: Bleach is a chemical contaminant, causing chemical poisoning, not a foodborne intoxication (which specifically refers to microbial toxins).

Question 23
Which of the following is a common food mold?
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B
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C
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D

Question 23 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Cladosporium

Cladosporium is a common type of mold often found on foods. It is a genus of fungi that includes many common indoor and outdoor molds. Cladosporium species can grow on a variety of foods, especially in humid conditions. While some molds are harmless, others can produce mycotoxins, which are toxic substances. Cladosporium itself is not typically associated with severe mycotoxin production compared to molds like Aspergillus or Penicillium, but it is still an indicator of spoilage and potential mold contamination.

• A) Yeast: Yeast is a type of fungus, but it’s generally classified separately from molds. Yeasts are typically single-celled, while molds are multicellular and filamentous.
• C) E. coli: E. coli is a bacterium, not a mold (fungus).

Question 24
A foodborne infection occurs when:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 24 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Bacteria enter the bloodstream

A foodborne infection occurs when bacteria (or other pathogens) enter the bloodstream or other tissues of the body after being ingested through contaminated food and multiplying in the intestines. The key characteristic of an infection is that live microorganisms are ingested and colonize the host.

• A) Toxins in bacteria reach a dangerous level: This describes foodborne intoxication, not infection.
• C) A customer is exposed to HIV: HIV is not transmitted through food. It’s a virus transmitted through specific bodily fluids.
• D) A food has a foamy outer surface and smells nutty: This describes food spoilage, possibly due to yeast or mold growth, but not specifically a foodborne infection. It’s a sign that the food is likely unsafe to eat, but doesn’t define foodborne infection.

Question 25
The greatest threat of Norovirus contamination can be traced to which of the following foods?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 25 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Oysters

The greatest threat of Norovirus contamination is often traced to oysters and other shellfish that are eaten raw or undercooked. Norovirus is a highly contagious virus that causes gastroenteritis (inflammation of the stomach and intestines). Shellfish, especially oysters, filter large volumes of water, and if the water is contaminated with fecal matter containing Norovirus (from sewage runoff, for example), they can concentrate the virus.

While Norovirus can be transmitted through various routes, including person-to-person contact and contaminated water (Option B), shellfish are a particularly high-risk food source for Norovirus outbreaks.

• Drinking water (Option B) can be a source, but shellfish are often more directly linked to large outbreaks.
• Beer (Option C) and Soy Sauce (Option D) are not associated with Norovirus contamination.

Question 26
Which of the following foods can lead to serious illness, even death?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 26 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Home infused olive oil with garlic and herbs

Home-infused olive oil with garlic and herbs poses a serious risk of botulism, a severe form of food poisoning that can lead to paralysis and even death. The risk comes from Clostridium botulinum bacteria, which can thrive in low-oxygen environments like oil. Garlic and herbs can harbor C. botulinum spores. When submerged in oil, especially at room temperature, these spores can germinate and produce botulinum toxin.

• Powdered eggs (Option B): While powdered eggs need to be handled properly, they are not inherently associated with a high risk of deadly foodborne illness.
• White vinegar (Option C): Vinegar is acidic and actually inhibits bacterial growth. It’s used as a food preservative.
• Canned soda (Option D): Canned soda is also not associated with deadly foodborne illness.

Important Food Safety Note: Commercially produced infused oils undergo processes to mitigate botulism risk. However, homemade infused oils, especially garlic-in-oil, should be avoided or made and stored with extreme caution (refrigerated and used very quickly). Restaurants should not use home-infused oils.

Question 27
The bacteria Vibrio vulnificus is commonly associated with which of the following foods?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 27 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Shellfish

As discussed earlier, Vibrio vulnificus bacteria are commonly associated with shellfish, particularly oysters. Eating raw or undercooked shellfish, especially from warm coastal waters, increases the risk of Vibrio vulnificus infection.

• Fruit (Option A), Flour (Option B), and Raw chicken (Option D) are not primary sources of Vibrio vulnificus.

Question 28
What method do bacteria use to reproduce?
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B
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C
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D

Question 28 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Dividing in two

Bacteria primarily reproduce asexually through a process called binary fission, which is essentially dividing in two. A single bacterium cell divides into two identical daughter cells. Under optimal conditions (temperature, nutrients, moisture), many bacteria can reproduce very rapidly, some doubling their population in as little as 20 minutes. This rapid reproduction is why time-temperature control is so critical in food safety.

• A) Releasing spores: Spores are a dormant, resistant form of some bacteria (like Clostridium and Bacillus), but spore release is not the primary method of bacterial reproduction. Spores are for survival under adverse conditions, not for normal multiplication.
• C) Merging and then dividing: This is not the standard bacterial reproduction method. Conjugation (genetic material transfer) can occur, but binary fission (dividing in two) is the primary mode of reproduction.

Question 29
Of the following listed foods, which one is most likely to cause a foodborne illness?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 29 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Cooked rice

Cooked rice, especially if improperly handled after cooking, is most likely to cause foodborne illness among the options listed. As explained earlier, Bacillus cereus is commonly associated with cooked rice.

• Canned tomato juice (Option A): Canned goods are generally safe if the can is intact and properly processed. The canning process destroys pathogens.
• Whole wheat flour (Option C): Raw flour has been linked to E. coli outbreaks, but it’s less likely to cause illness compared to cooked rice left at room temperature.
• Powdered egg white (Option D): Powdered egg products undergo pasteurization to reduce Salmonella risk.

Cooked rice becomes a risk primarily due to improper cooling and holding, allowing Bacillus cereus spores to germinate and produce toxins.

Question 30
When a food product comes into contact with something that contains toxic chemicals:
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 30 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) A chemical hazard occurs

When food comes into contact with toxic chemicals, a chemical hazard occurs. The toxic chemicals themselves are the hazard.

• A) A biological hazard occurs: Biological hazards are living organisms (pathogens) or their toxins. Chemicals are not biological.
• C) A physical hazard occurs: Physical hazards are tangible objects. Chemicals are substances, not objects in this context.
• D) A tangible hazard occurs: While chemicals are tangible in the sense of being real substances, the term “physical hazard” is more specifically used for solid objects in food safety terminology. “Chemical hazard” is the precise classification.

Question 31
Which of the following events is a key factor in the rapid growth of microorganisms?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 31 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Time and temperature

Time and temperature control are the key factors in the rapid growth of microorganisms. Bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens have temperature ranges in which they grow best (the Danger Zone). Given enough time within the Danger Zone, and favorable temperatures, they can multiply to dangerous levels.

• A) Personal hygiene: Personal hygiene is crucial for preventing contamination, but not directly a factor in the growth rate of microorganisms already in food.
• B) A humid kitchen: Humidity can contribute to microbial growth, but temperature is the more dominant factor.
• D) Exposure to bleach: Bleach is a sanitizer used to kill microorganisms, not promote their growth.

The “Big Six” Foodborne Illness Risk Factors (according to the CDC):

1. Purchasing food from unsafe sources
2. Failing to cook food adequately
3. Holding food at improper temperatures
4. Contaminated equipment
5. Poor personal hygiene

Time and temperature control is directly related to factor #3 (Holding food at improper temperatures) and factor #2 (Failing to cook food adequately).

Question 32
Which of the following items would most likely cause food to become unsafe?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 32 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Earrings

Earrings are the item most likely to cause food to become unsafe. Earrings are jewelry, and jewelry is a common physical hazard in food. They can fall off and end up in food, posing a choking hazard or causing other injuries.

• B) A red colored shirt, C) A Yankee’s hat, D) Black leather shoes: Clothing items like these, unless visibly soiled or improperly worn, are less likely to directly contaminate food in a way that makes it unsafe. Restaurant uniforms and hats are designed to minimize contamination.

Question 33
The greatest threat of E. coli contamination can be traced to which of the following foods?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 33 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Ground beef

The greatest threat of E. coli O157:H7 contamination is most strongly linked to ground beef. As mentioned before, E. coli O157:H7 is a particularly dangerous strain associated with cattle intestines and can contaminate beef during slaughter and processing, especially ground beef because grinding mixes meat from multiple animals, increasing the risk of widespread contamination if one animal was infected.

• Raw oysters (Option A): Oysters are more associated with Norovirus and Vibrio vulnificus.
• Raw poultry (Option C): Poultry is more strongly linked to Salmonella and Campylobacter.
• Eggs (Option D): Eggs are more associated with Salmonella.

Question 34
The food pathogen Clostridium Botulinum is often associated with which of the following foods?
A
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B
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C
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D

Question 34 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Clostridium botulinum is indeed associated with all of the above food types because these foods can create anaerobic (low-oxygen) conditions where C. botulinum can thrive and produce its deadly toxin:

• A) Canned foods: Improperly canned foods, especially home-canned goods, are a classic source of botulism. The canning process can create an anaerobic environment if not done correctly, and if spores survive the canning process, they can germinate and produce toxin.
• B) Herb-infused oils: As discussed earlier, herb-infused oils, especially homemade garlic-in-oil, can create anaerobic conditions.
• C) Smoked or salted fish: In some cases, improperly processed smoked or salted fish can also create anaerobic environments where C. botulinum can grow.

Question 35
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy is more commonly known as:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 35 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Mad Cow Disease

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) is more commonly known as Mad Cow Disease. BSE is a fatal neurodegenerative disease in cattle caused by prions (misfolded proteins). It’s a serious public health concern because the prion can be transmitted to humans who eat infected beef products, causing variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD), a fatal human prion disease.

• A) The pig disease: Pig diseases are different, like Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS).
• B) West Nile Virus: West Nile Virus is a mosquito-borne viral disease.
• D) Lupus: Lupus is a chronic autoimmune disease.

Question 36
What is the level of water activity required for microorganisms to grow?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 36 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) 0.85

The level of water activity (a_w) required for most pathogenic microorganisms to grow is 0.85 or above. As explained earlier, water activity measures the amount of unbound water available for microbial growth. Foods with a water activity of 0.85 or higher are considered potentially hazardous foods (PHFs) or TCS foods because they can support rapid microbial growth.

Question 37
Listeria monocytogenes is of particular concern because:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 37 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Can grow slowly in refrigerators

Listeria monocytogenes is of particular concern because it can grow slowly in refrigerators at temperatures as low as 34°F (1°C), which is below the typical refrigerator temperature of 41°F (5°C). Most other common foodborne pathogens are significantly inhibited or stop growing at refrigeration temperatures. This ability to grow at low temperatures makes Listeria a risk in refrigerated ready-to-eat foods.

• A) It is a bacteria: While it’s true Listeria is a bacteria, this is not the particular reason for concern. Many foodborne illnesses are caused by bacteria.
• B) It is a mold: Listeria is a bacterium, not a mold (fungus).

Foods often associated with Listeria include ready-to-eat deli meats, hot dogs, soft cheeses, unpasteurized milk, and smoked seafood.

Question 38
Norwalk virus is typically associated with which of the following transmission vectors?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 38 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Norovirus is associated with all of the above transmission vectors:

• A) Raw oysters: As discussed, shellfish, especially oysters, are a major food source for Norovirus outbreaks.
• B) Person-to-person contact: Norovirus is highly contagious and easily spread through direct contact with infected individuals, especially through fecal-oral transmission.
• C) Water: Contaminated water (drinking water, recreational water) can be a source of Norovirus.

Norovirus is extremely contagious and is a leading cause of viral gastroenteritis worldwide. Good hygiene practices, especially proper handwashing, are crucial to prevent its spread.

Question 39
Yersiniosis is a foodborne pathogen typically associated with which of the following foods?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 39 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Milk

Yersiniosis, caused by the bacterium Yersinia enterocolitica, is most typically associated with milk, particularly unpasteurized milk and milk products. Yersinia enterocolitica can grow at refrigeration temperatures, similar to Listeria, making refrigerated dairy products a potential source if contaminated.

• Cheese (Option B): While dairy products in general can be a source, milk is more directly associated with Yersinia.
• Eggs (Option C): Eggs are more associated with Salmonella.

Question 40
Tetrodotoxin is a toxin associated with which of the following foods:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 40 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Pufferfish

Tetrodotoxin (TTX) is a potent neurotoxin naturally found in pufferfish (also known as fugu). Pufferfish poisoning is caused by consuming pufferfish that has not been properly prepared to remove the toxic organs (liver, ovaries, skin). Even minute amounts of tetrodotoxin can be fatal. Only specially trained and licensed chefs are legally allowed to prepare fugu in some countries, like Japan, due to the extreme risk.

• Moldy cheese (Option A): Moldy cheese can contain mycotoxins, but not tetrodotoxin.
• Tomatoes (Option B) and Garlic (Option D) do not contain tetrodotoxin.

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Personal Hygiene (25 Questions)

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Congratulations – you have completed Personal Hygiene (25 Questions). You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

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Question 1
What is the first action someone should take when entering the restaurant for a work shift?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 1 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Change into work clothes

While handwashing is critical and must be done frequently, the very first action upon arriving for a shift should be changing into work clothes. This is because street clothes can harbor contaminants that you don’t want to bring into the food preparation areas. Once in clean work clothes, the next crucial step is handwashing.

• B) Wash hands: Handwashing should be done immediately after changing into work clothes, and frequently throughout the shift, but changing clothes is the initial step in preparing for work.
• A) Sign their time card/clock in: Clocking in is an administrative task that comes after being ready to work safely.
• D) Communicate with the staff: Briefing with staff can happen after the employee is properly ready to start working in a sanitary manner.

The sequence should be: Arrive -> Change Clothes -> Wash Hands -> Clock In -> Start Work/Communicate with Staff.

Question 2
When you are not feeling well and have a sore throat or diarrhea, you should:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 2 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) Stay at home

If you are experiencing symptoms like a sore throat with fever or diarrhea, the most responsible action is to stay at home. Working while sick, especially with these symptoms, poses a significant risk of spreading illness to coworkers and customers, potentially causing a foodborne illness outbreak.

• A) Tell your coworkers that you are sick and to keep a distance: While informing coworkers is considerate, it does not eliminate the risk of spreading illness.
• B) Wash your hands constantly during your shift: Frequent handwashing is always important, but it is not enough to prevent the spread of illness when you are actively sick.
• C) Take some medicine and continue to work: Medication may mask symptoms, but you can still be contagious. Working while sick is against food safety guidelines.

Food handlers must be excluded from work if they have:

• Diarrhea
• Vomiting
• Jaundice (yellowing of skin or eyes)
• Sore throat with fever
• Diagnosed with Salmonella, Shigella, E. coli O157:H7, Hepatitis A, or Norovirus.

Question 3
The correct time to wash your hands is after which one of the following events?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 3 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Handwashing is essential at numerous times during a work shift. All of the listed events require handwashing to prevent contamination:

• A) After taking a break, smoking a cigarette, or eating: These activities can introduce contaminants to your hands.
• B) Using the toilet: This is a critical time to wash hands to prevent fecal-oral transmission of pathogens.
• C) Touching meat, fish, or poultry: Raw animal products can harbor pathogens, so handwashing is necessary after handling them.

Key times to wash hands include:

• Before starting work
• After using the restroom
• After touching raw meat, poultry, or seafood
• After touching garbage
• After sneezing, coughing, or using a tissue
• After eating, drinking, smoking, or chewing gum or tobacco
• After handling dirty dishes, utensils, or equipment
• After handling chemicals
• After taking breaks
• After handling money

Question 4
Hand Sanitizers are an acceptable form of hand sanitation because:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 4 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) It is not an acceptable form of hand sanitation

Hand sanitizers are not a substitute for proper handwashing in foodservice. While hand sanitizers can reduce the number of microorganisms on hands, they are not as effective as soap and water for removing dirt, grease, and many types of pathogens, especially viruses like Norovirus and Clostridium difficile spores.

• A) They are just as effective as washing your hands, B) They kill all of the bacteria on your hands, C) Provide more protection than washing your hands: These are all incorrect. Handwashing with soap and water is the primary and most effective method of hand hygiene.

Hand sanitizer can be used after proper handwashing as an additional step, but never as a replacement for it.

Question 5
Of the following listed items, which is not permitted for employees to wear in a restaurant kitchen?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 5 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Jewelry

Jewelry is generally not permitted for employees to wear in a restaurant kitchen (or food preparation areas). Jewelry (rings, bracelets, necklaces, watches, earrings) can harbor bacteria and can fall into food, becoming a physical hazard.

• A) Prescription eyeglasses: Prescription eyeglasses are generally permitted as they are necessary for vision. However, they should be secured to prevent them from falling into food.
• C) Baseball hats: Baseball hats (or other hair restraints like hairnets, chef hats) are permitted and required to keep hair from contaminating food.

Permitted Jewelry: A plain band ring (like a wedding band) is sometimes allowed, but it’s best practice to remove all jewelry.

Employee Dress Code Guidelines generally include:

• Clean clothing daily
• Hair restraints (hats, hairnets)
• No jewelry (or minimal plain band ring)
• Clean aprons
• Closed-toe shoes
• No false fingernails or nail polish (or gloves if allowed)

Question 6
A worker at a French bistro comes into work with a sore throat and fever. The correct action for the manager to take is:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 6 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) Send the worker home

As with Question 2, a worker with a sore throat and fever should be sent home. This is a key symptom that could indicate a contagious illness that can be transmitted through food, especially if the sore throat is accompanied by fever.

• A) Have the employee work as the hostess, B) Slice raw foods in the kitchen, C) Clean dishes: Assigning the employee to any role in the restaurant, whether customer-facing or in the kitchen, still presents a risk of spreading illness to others.

Restriction vs. Exclusion:

• Restriction: Limiting the activities of food handlers so they do not work with exposed food, clean utensils, or equipment. This might be used for employees with minor symptoms (like a simple cough without fever).
• Exclusion: Prohibiting food handlers from working in the foodservice operation. This is required for employees with more serious symptoms (diarrhea, vomiting, jaundice, sore throat with fever, diagnosed illnesses).

In this case, with a sore throat and fever, exclusion is the correct action.

Question 7
While chopping vegetables, a kitchen worker cuts his hand. The proper process for the worker to follow is:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 7 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) Wash the wound, bandage, then place a glove on the hand and return to work

The proper procedure for a kitchen worker who cuts their hand is:

1. Wash the wound: Clean the cut thoroughly with soap and water.
2. Apply a bandage: Cover the wound with a clean bandage.
3. Cover the bandage with a glove (or finger cot): Place a single-use glove or finger cot over the bandaged wound to create a barrier and prevent blood or wound drainage from contaminating food.

• A) Wrap his hand in duct tape and continue to work: Duct tape is not a sanitary bandage and is not food-safe.
• B) Put a plastic glove on and return to work: Simply putting on a glove without cleaning and bandaging the wound is insufficient and can lead to contamination.
• C) Use one hand: Working with one hand is impractical and does not address the risk of contamination from the wound.

Wound Management for Food Handlers:

• Minor cuts and burns must be covered with a clean bandage.
• If the wound is on the hand or wrist, it must be covered with an impermeable cover (like a finger cot or glove) and then a bandage.
• If the wound is on the arm, it needs an impermeable cover.
• If the wound is on another part of the body, cover it with a dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage.

Question 8
Hand washing stations should include all of the following except:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 8 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Cloth towel

Handwashing stations must include:

• A) Hot and cold water: Water must be potable (safe to drink) and at a suitable temperature (at least 100°F (38°C) for handwashing).
• B) Soap: Liquid, bar, or powdered soap.
• D) Waste bin: For proper disposal of paper towels.

Handwashing stations should not include cloth towels. Cloth towels can harbor bacteria and are not sanitary for drying hands in a foodservice setting. Single-use paper towels are the sanitary option for drying hands at a handwashing station.

Question 9
Hands should be washed with water and soap for at least how long?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 9 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) Twenty seconds

The entire handwashing process should take at least 20 seconds. This includes:

1. Wet hands and arms with warm water (at least 100°F/38°C).
2. Apply soap.
3. Scrub hands and arms vigorously for 10-15 seconds (this is the scrubbing time within the 20-second total process). Clean under fingernails and between fingers.
4. Rinse hands and arms thoroughly under running water.
5. Dry hands and arms using a single-use paper towel or a hot-air hand dryer.
6. If possible, use a paper towel to turn off the faucet and open the door to avoid re-contaminating hands.

Question 10
A worker in your restaurant spends the entire eight hour shift shaping hamburger patties. How often should the employee change his or her gloves?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 10 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Every hour

Gloves should be changed every hour when in continuous use, or more frequently if they become soiled, torn, or when switching tasks. Even if gloves appear intact, bacteria can build up inside them over time. For tasks like shaping hamburger patties for an entire shift, hourly glove changes are essential.

When to Change Gloves:

• As soon as they become soiled or torn
• Before beginning a different task
• At least every four hours during continuous use (some guidelines recommend every hour for high-risk tasks or prolonged use)
• After handling raw meat, poultry, or seafood and before handling ready-to-eat food

Question 11
If a kitchen worker comes into work with dirty fingernails, unkempt hair, and smells of body odor, the correct action is:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 11 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Send the employee home

An employee with dirty fingernails, unkempt hair, and body odor does not meet personal hygiene standards for food handlers. The correct action is to send the employee home to correct these issues. These conditions are unsanitary and could contaminate food.

• A) Give him a stick of deodorant, B) Make fun of the employee, D) Ignore the problem: These options are inappropriate and do not address the food safety risk.

Managers have a responsibility to ensure that all employees adhere to personal hygiene standards. This includes addressing issues like appearance and body odor in a professional and private manner.

Question 12
Which of the following actions is considered unsafe for the kitchen staff?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 12 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Chewing gum while working

Chewing gum while working in the kitchen is considered unsafe. It’s a personal hygiene risk because:

• Saliva can be transferred to the gum and then potentially to hands or food.

• Gum chewing can be seen as unprofessional and unhygienic in a food preparation environment.

• There’s a risk of the gum falling out of the mouth and into food, becoming a physical hazard.

• B) Taking a cigarette break, then washing hands: Taking a break is acceptable, and washing hands after a cigarette break is the correct procedure.

• C) Overcooking a pasta dish: Overcooking food affects quality, but not directly food safety (unless it’s severely burned, which could create harmful compounds).

• D) Wearing white shoes in a kitchen: White shoes can be part of a clean uniform and are not inherently unsafe, though they can get dirty easily.

Question 13
Employees should wash hands after performing all of the following events, except:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 13 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) Washing dishes

Employees should wash hands after all of the events listed except washing dishes.

• A) Smoking, B) Eating, C) Taking a break: As discussed, these activities can contaminate hands and require handwashing afterward.
• D) Washing dishes: While handwashing is crucial, there’s no direct reason to wash hands immediately after washing dishes, provided that the dishwashing process itself is being done correctly (with proper washing, rinsing, and sanitizing). However, if dishwashing involves handling dirty dishes or waste, handwashing after completing dishwashing tasks is important. The question implies immediately after the act of washing dishes itself.

Question 14
The most important action a cook can take to control foodborne disease is:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 14 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Washing their hands often

Washing hands often is widely considered the single most important action a cook (or any food handler) can take to control foodborne disease. Handwashing is a fundamental practice that effectively removes microorganisms from hands, preventing the spread of pathogens to food, surfaces, and other people.

While the other options are also important hygiene practices:

• B) Wearing a hair net or some other sort of hair covering, C) Washing their uniform daily, D) Wearing gloves: These are all good practices to minimize contamination, but handwashing is the most foundational and impactful step in preventing foodborne illness.

Question 15
Two kitchen workers decide to take a break and step outside. The correct action for the non-smoking employee is to:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 15 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Wash hands then return to work

Regardless of whether they smoked or not, any employee returning to work after taking a break (even just stepping outside) must wash their hands then return to work. Breaks, even short ones, can expose hands to contaminants.

• A) Return to work: Returning to work without handwashing is a hygiene violation.
• C) Take a longer break, D) Start smoking: These are irrelevant to food safety after taking a break.

Question 16
If an employee comes to work with severe diarrhea and the chills, the most appropriate action for the manager to take is:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 16 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Send the employee home

An employee with severe diarrhea and chills should be sent home immediately. These are strong symptoms of a potential foodborne illness and are on the list of conditions requiring exclusion from work.

• A) Buy more toilet paper, B) Have the worker do administrative duties, D) Have the employee peel onions in the kitchen: These are all completely inappropriate responses. The employee is clearly ill and poses a risk to food safety and other employees.

Question 17
What is the most important personal hygiene practice?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 17 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Washing your hands

Again, washing your hands is considered the most important personal hygiene practice in foodservice. While all of the listed practices are important, handwashing is the most impactful in preventing the spread of pathogens.

Question 18
Which of the following items is prohibited in an employee bathroom?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 18 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Cloth towels

Cloth towels are prohibited in employee bathrooms (and handwashing stations in general) in foodservice settings. As mentioned before, cloth towels can harbor bacteria and are not sanitary for hand drying.

Employee bathrooms must have:

• A) Hand soap
• B) Hot and cold water
• D) Hand washing sign: To remind employees of proper handwashing procedures.
• Single-use paper towels (instead of cloth towels)
• Waste bin

Question 19
After you have washed your hands, which of the following items is an acceptable item to dry your hands with?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 19 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Single-use paper towels

Single-use paper towels are the only acceptable item from the list to dry hands after handwashing in a foodservice setting.

• A) Your kitchen apron: Aprons are for protecting clothes and can be contaminated. Using an apron to dry hands is highly unsanitary.
• C) A cloth towel: As repeatedly stated, cloth towels are not sanitary for hand drying at handwashing stations.
• D) None of the above: Single-use paper towels are indeed acceptable.

Hot-air hand dryers are also an acceptable alternative to paper towels, but they must be properly maintained and functioning.

Question 20
Employee training concerning personal hygiene should start:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 20 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) After the employee has been hired

Employee training on personal hygiene should start after the employee has been hired, but before they begin working with food. This ensures that employees understand and follow hygiene procedures from their very first day.

• A) Within the first month of employment, C) During the first working shift, D) After the first working shift: These options are too late. Hygiene training needs to be proactive, not reactive or delayed.

Training should be ongoing and reinforced regularly, but the initial training must happen before the employee starts food handling duties.

Question 21
In a restaurant, hand sanitizer can be used after:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 21 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Washing hands

Hand sanitizer can be used after washing hands as an additional step for hand hygiene. It is not a substitute for handwashing.

• A) Clocking in, B) Going to the bathroom, D) The dishwasher: Hand sanitizer is not a replacement for handwashing in these situations or any time hands are contaminated.

Hand sanitizer should only be applied to clean hands (after handwashing) and should be allowed to air dry completely to be effective.

Question 22
Of the following listed items, which one is a kitchen employee permitted to wear when working in the kitchen?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 22 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Eyeglasses

Eyeglasses are generally permitted for kitchen employees who need them to see. As mentioned earlier, they should be secured.

• A) Diamond ring, D) Large gold chain: Jewelry, including rings and necklaces, is generally prohibited in kitchens due to the physical and potential bacterial hazards.
• C) Wig: Wigs are generally not recommended unless they are specifically designed for foodservice and are properly secured and cleaned, as they can also be a source of contamination. Hair restraints are preferred.

Question 23
An employee enters the restaurant and changes, clocks in, sanitizes their hands and begins to work. What did this employee forget?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 23 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) None of the above

The employee actually forgot to wash their hands with soap and water before using hand sanitizer. The employee changed clothes and clocked in (good), and used hand sanitizer (which is okay after handwashing), but skipped the essential step of handwashing with soap and water first.

Hand sanitizer is not a substitute for handwashing and is only effective on clean hands.

Question 24
Food handlers should wash their hands after which of the following events?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 24 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Food handlers must wash their hands after all of the listed events to prevent cross-contamination and the spread of pathogens:

• A) Taking out the garbage: Garbage is a source of contamination.
• B) Touching cleaning chemicals: Cleaning chemicals should not be on hands when handling food.
• C) Handling raw poultry: Raw poultry can contain pathogens like Salmonella and Campylobacter.

Question 25
Which of the following rules is the most important regarding the safety of food in the restaurant?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 25 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Washing hands

As repeatedly emphasized, washing hands is the most important rule regarding food safety in a restaurant. It is the most effective and fundamental practice to prevent foodborne illness.

While the other options are also very important:

• A) Consulting with the Department of Health, B) Rodent control, D) Training staff: These are all crucial components of a food safety program, but handwashing is the most direct and frequently needed action to prevent contamination by food handlers.

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Purchasing, Receiving and Storage (53 Questions)

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Congratulations – you have completed Purchasing, Receiving and Storage (53 Questions). You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

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Question 1
To avoid foods spoiling in the refrigerator or freezer, which of the following actions is always recommended?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 1 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Placing a date of arrival on all foods

Placing a date of arrival on all foods upon receiving is a fundamental practice for proper stock rotation and preventing spoilage. Dating allows you to implement FIFO (First-In, First-Out) effectively, ensuring that older products are used before newer ones.

• A) Placing the oldest product on top of newer product: While organizing stock is important, just placing older products on top doesn’t guarantee FIFO or prevent spoilage if foods aren’t dated.
• B) Ordering foods for a few days at a time only: Ordering frequently can help reduce spoilage, but it’s not always practical and doesn’t replace the need for proper dating and storage.
• D) Smelling the food to make sure it is fresh: Smelling food is not a reliable method to determine safety, especially for potentially hazardous foods. Some pathogens don’t cause noticeable odors or spoilage signs. Relying on smell can be dangerous.

FIFO System:

1. Identify the use-by or expiration dates of products.
2. Store items with earlier dates in front of items with later dates.
3. Use items stored in front first.
4. Regularly check expiration dates and discard expired items.

Question 2
Foods should not be kept in the Danger Zone for more than:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 2 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) 4 hours

Potentially hazardous foods (TCS foods) should not be kept in the Danger Zone (41°F to 135°F) for more than a cumulative total of 4 hours. This is the maximum time limit for food safety.

• A) 1 hour: While minimizing time in the Danger Zone is ideal, 1 hour is too restrictive for many foodservice operations.
• C) 10 hours, D) 1 eight hour shift: These timeframes are far too long and would allow dangerous levels of bacterial growth.

The 4-Hour Rule: Food held in the Danger Zone for more than 4 hours must be discarded. This is based on the principle that bacteria can multiply to unsafe levels within this time at Danger Zone temperatures.

Question 3
Foods that are decomposed or produced in unsanitary conditions are considered:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 3 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Adulterated Foods

Foods that are decomposed or produced in unsanitary conditions are legally defined as adulterated foods. Adulteration means that a food is impure, unsafe, or unwholesome. Selling or serving adulterated food is illegal and can lead to serious consequences.

• B) Potentially Hazardous Foods: Potentially hazardous foods (TCS foods) are foods that can become hazardous if not handled properly, but they are not necessarily decomposed or produced in unsanitary conditions.
• C) Gourmet: “Gourmet” refers to high-quality, often specialty foods, and has nothing to do with food safety or sanitation.
• D) Potable: “Potable” means safe to drink, referring to water.

Question 4
Of the following listed foods, which category requires you to save and store tags related to the date and place of origin?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 4 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Clams and Oysters

Clams and oysters (and other shellfish like mussels and scallops) require that you save and store shellstock identification tags. These tags contain critical information about the date and place of harvest, the supplier, and certifications. This is because shellfish are filter feeders and can concentrate pathogens from contaminated water. Keeping tags allows for traceability in case of a foodborne illness outbreak linked to shellfish.

• A) Raw Chicken, B) Ground Beef, D) Raw Vegetables: While proper receiving and record-keeping are important for all foods, shellstock tags are a specific requirement for shellfish due to their unique risks.

Shellstock Tag Requirements:

• Tags must be kept for 90 days from the date the last shellfish was sold or served from the container.
• Tags should be kept in chronological order.

Question 5
A package of opened hot dogs should only be used for no more than which amount of days?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 5 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) 1 week

An opened package of hot dogs should generally be used within 1 week (7 days) if stored properly in the refrigerator at 41°F (5°C) or below. This is a common guideline for many processed meats after opening.

• A) 2 days, D) 1 day: These are too short and not typical guidelines for opened hot dogs.
• C) 5 days: 5 days might be acceptable, but 7 days is the more common and often cited guideline for opened hot dogs in consumer and foodservice settings.

“Use-by” vs. “Best-by” Dates:

• “Use-by” date: Indicates the last day the manufacturer recommends using the product for peak quality and safety. For TCS foods, it’s crucial to adhere to “use-by” dates for safety.
• “Best-by” date: Indicates the date for best quality, flavor, or texture, but the product may still be safe to consume after this date if stored properly.

For opened packages of processed meats like hot dogs, following “use-by” dates and recommended storage times is essential for food safety.

Question 6
At what temperature maximum should your refrigerator be kept at all times?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 6 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) 40°F

Refrigerators should be kept at a maximum temperature of 40°F (4°C) to ensure food safety. Keeping the refrigerator at or below 40°F is critical because it’s below the Danger Zone (which starts at 41°F). Maintaining this temperature helps to slow down or inhibit the growth of most foodborne pathogens.

• C) 45°F: 45°F is above the safe refrigeration temperature and within the Danger Zone.
• A) 30°F, D) 32°F: While these are colder and safer, 40°F or below is the standard guideline and sufficient for safe refrigeration. Setting refrigerators too cold can lead to freezing some foods.

Regular Temperature Monitoring: Refrigerators and freezers should have accurate thermometers, and temperatures should be checked and recorded regularly (at least twice a day).

Question 7
Which of the following foods is considered a potentially hazardous food?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 7 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Strawberries

Strawberries are considered a potentially hazardous food (PHF) or TCS food because they are perishable and can support the growth of microorganisms if not properly handled and refrigerated.

• A) Saltines, B) Flour, D) Vinegar: These are generally not considered PHFs/TCS foods.
  • Saltines are dry and have low water activity.
  • Flour is dry and also has low water activity.
  • Vinegar is acidic (low pH), which inhibits bacterial growth.

Characteristics of PHFs/TCS Foods:

• High moisture content (water activity > 0.85)
• Neutral to slightly acidic pH (pH > 4.6)
• Often high in protein

Strawberries, while acidic, are still considered TCS due to their moisture content and perishability.

Question 8
It is the middle of a service and your walk-in refrigerator has broken down. You call the repairman to fix the problem. How much time can the foods in the refrigerator hold (above 41 °F) before you need to throw them away?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 8 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) 2 hours

If a refrigerator breaks down and food temperatures rise above 41°F (5°C), you have 2 hours to take corrective action (repair the refrigerator, move food to another working refrigerator, use the food immediately if safe to do so). If the food remains above 41°F for more than 2 hours, it must be discarded.

• C) 4 hours, D) 8 hours: These timeframes are too long and would allow unsafe bacterial growth.
• A) 1 hour: 1 hour might be too restrictive in a breakdown situation.

Emergency Procedures for Refrigerator Breakdown:

1. Monitor temperature closely.
2. If temperature rises above 41°F, note the time.
3. You have 2 hours to get the temperature back down to 41°F or below.
4. If food is above 41°F for more than 2 hours, discard it.
5. If food is above 70°F for more than 2 hours, discard it immediately.

Question 9
To ensure that all foods susceptible to foodborne illness are maintained at a proper temperature, which of the following areas require some form of temperature monitoring?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 9 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

All of the listed areas require temperature monitoring to ensure food safety:

• A) Thermometers in refrigerators and freezers: Essential to verify that cold storage is at safe temperatures (40°F or below for refrigerators, 0°F or below for freezers).
• B) Thermometers at all cooking stations: To check internal cooking temperatures of foods to ensure they reach safe minimum internal temperatures to kill pathogens.
• C) Thermometers on dishwashers: To verify that dishwashers are reaching proper sanitizing temperatures (e.g., 180°F for hot water sanitizing dishwashers, or proper chemical sanitizer concentration).

Temperature monitoring is a critical component of a HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points) system and is essential at all stages of food flow where temperature control is important for safety.

Question 10
Which item has not been stored properly?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 10 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Flour stored on the floor

Flour stored on the floor is not stored properly. Foods should never be stored directly on the floor. This is because:

• Floors can be dirty and harbor pests, contaminants, and moisture.
• Storing food on the floor makes it difficult to clean the floor properly.

Foods must be stored:

• At least 6 inches (15 cm) off the floor

• Away from walls (to allow for pest control and cleaning)

• In dry storage areas, in a cool, dry place, away from direct sunlight

• In refrigerators and freezers, at proper temperatures

• B) Tomatoes stored in the refrigerator: Tomatoes can be stored in the refrigerator, although some argue it can affect their texture and flavor. From a food safety perspective, refrigeration is acceptable.

• C) Rice stored in colored plastic containers: Storing rice in sealed, food-grade containers is proper dry storage. Colored plastic containers are acceptable as long as they are food-grade and clean.

Question 11
Perishable foods should not be left at room temperature for more than:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 11 Explanation:

Correct Answer: B) Two hours

Perishable foods (TCS foods) should not be left at room temperature (Danger Zone) for more than 2 hours. This is part of the 4-hour rule: 2 hours cumulative in the Danger Zone above 70°F (21°C), and a total of 4 hours cumulative in the Danger Zone (41°F to 135°F).

• A) Four hours, C) Eight hours, D) Twenty-four hours: These timeframes are too long and would allow unsafe bacterial growth.

The 2-Hour/4-Hour Rule:

• Discard TCS food that has been in the Danger Zone for 4 hours or more.
• Discard TCS food that has been in the Danger Zone above 70°F (21°C) for 2 hours or more.

Question 12
Which of the following is a potentially hazardous food?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 12 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) Ice cream

Ice cream is considered a potentially hazardous food (PHF) or TCS food because it is a dairy product, has high moisture content, and can support bacterial growth if temperature abused.

• A) Dry rice, D) Caraway seeds: These are dry goods with low water activity and are not PHFs/TCS foods.
• B) Canned soda: Canned soda is shelf-stable, acidic, and not a PHF/TCS food.

Question 13
The cold storage time for ground beef in a refrigerator set to 40°F or below is:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 13 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) 1 to 2 days

The recommended cold storage time for ground beef in a refrigerator at 40°F (4°C) or below is 1 to 2 days. Ground beef is more perishable and has a shorter shelf life than whole cuts of beef due to its increased surface area and potential for bacterial contamination during grinding.

• B) 3 to 4 days, C) 5 to 6 days, D) 7 to 10 days: These are too long for safe cold storage of ground beef.

Recommended Cold Storage Times (general guidelines – always check specific product labels):

• Ground meat (beef, pork, etc.): 1-2 days
• Steaks, chops, roasts (beef, pork, lamb, veal): 3-5 days
• Poultry (whole or ground): 1-2 days
• Fresh fish: 1-2 days
• Eggs (in shell): 3-5 weeks
• Ready-to-eat foods (prepared on-site): 7 days (from preparation date)

Question 14
Which event could lead to the contamination of food?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 14 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Storing chemicals on top of rice

Storing chemicals on top of rice is a dangerous practice that could lead to chemical contamination of food. If chemicals leak or spill, they can contaminate the rice, making it unsafe to consume. Chemicals should always be stored separately and below food to prevent this type of contamination.

• B) Using separate cutting boards for cutting raw meat and vegetables, C) Washing hands at designated sinks, D) Labeling food with the date of receipt: These are all positive food safety practices designed to prevent contamination, not cause it.

Question 15
When you are receiving a food order from one of your suppliers, it is important to:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 15 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Check the internal temperature of potentially hazardous foods

When receiving food deliveries, the most important action for food safety is to check the internal temperature of potentially hazardous foods (PHFs/TCS foods). This ensures that foods have been transported at safe temperatures (41°F or below for cold foods, 135°F or above for hot foods).

• B) Talk to the driver about the weather, D) Have all personnel in the restaurant help you unload the goods: These are not directly related to immediate food safety upon receiving.
• C) Make sure all items on the invoice have arrived: Verifying the order is important for inventory and business, but temperature checks are paramount for food safety.

Receiving Procedures:

1. Inspect delivery truck for cleanliness and proper temperature.
2. Visually inspect food items for signs of damage, spoilage, or pests.
3. Check temperatures of TCS foods with a calibrated thermometer.
   • Cold TCS foods: 41°F (5°C) or lower (some exceptions like milk and shellfish allow slightly higher receiving temperatures if cooled to 41°F within a specific timeframe).
   • Hot TCS foods: 135°F (57°C) or higher.
   • Frozen foods: Should be frozen solid.
4. Check “use-by” or expiration dates.
5. Reject any items that do not meet standards.
6. Document receiving and any rejected items.

Question 16
In what area of the restaurant should pesticides be stored?
A
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B
—
C
—
D

Question 16 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) In a locked compartment

Pesticides must be stored in a locked compartment away from food, food contact surfaces, and cleaning supplies. This is crucial to prevent accidental contamination and ensure that only authorized personnel have access to these hazardous chemicals.

• A) With the cleaning solutions, B) In the dry storage area, C) In the linen area of the restaurant: Storing pesticides in any of these areas poses a risk of chemical contamination.

Chemical Storage Guidelines:

• Store chemicals in a designated, secure location, away from food and food preparation areas.
• Store chemicals in their original, labeled containers.
• Never store chemicals above food.
• Follow manufacturer’s instructions for use and storage.
• Keep Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) readily available for all chemicals.

Question 17
Under which listed condition should you reject the delivery of a carton of raw chicken?
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 17 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) The surface temperature of the chicken is 80°F

A delivery of raw chicken should be rejected if the surface temperature is 80°F (27°C). This is a dangerously high temperature, indicating that the chicken has been temperature abused and is likely unsafe. Raw chicken must be received at 41°F (5°C) or below.

• B) The chicken is firm when touched: Firm chicken is a sign of freshness, not a reason for rejection.
• C) The chicken is wrapped in plastic wrap: Plastic wrap is a common packaging material for chicken and not a reason for rejection.
• D) The carton says USDA organic: USDA organic labeling is a positive attribute and not a reason to reject the delivery.

Question 18
Which one of the following food sources is considered unapproved for serving in a restaurant:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 18 Explanation:

Correct Answer: C) McDonald’s

McDonald’s (or any other retail restaurant) is considered an unapproved food source for serving in your own restaurant. Restaurants must purchase food from approved, reputable suppliers. Approved suppliers are those that meet food safety standards and are subject to inspections. Buying food from a retail restaurant like McDonald’s is not considered a safe or approved source because you cannot verify their food safety practices for bulk resale.

• A) Local farm, B) Local food distributor, D) National food distributor: These can be approved food sources, provided they meet food safety standards and are reputable. Restaurants need to verify the approval and reputation of any supplier they use.

Question 19
If you are preparing a fish dish that contains clams and mussels and notice the clams and mussels are open before cooking you should:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 19 Explanation:

Correct Answer: D) Throw the shellfish in the garbage

If clams and mussels are open before cooking, they are likely dead and should be thrown away. Live clams and mussels should be closed, or close when tapped. Open shellfish before cooking are a sign of spoilage and potential contamination.

• A) Ignore the problem, B) Serve the shellfish to the dishwashers, C) Cook the shellfish for five extra minutes: These are all unsafe options. Spoiled shellfish should never be cooked or served.

Shellfish Receiving Criteria:

• Live shellfish (clams, oysters, mussels, scallops): Receive alive and closed. If open, they should close when tapped. Discard if they do not close.
• Shucked shellfish: Receive at 41°F (5°C) or lower.
• Frozen shellfish: Should be frozen solid.
• Shellstock identification tags: Must be present and kept for 90 days.

Question 20
Scombroid poisoning can be prevented by:
A
—
B
—
C
—
D

Question 20 Explanation:

Correct Answer: A) Buying your fish from a reputable dealer

Scombroid poisoning is best prevented by buying fish from a reputable dealer who practices proper temperature control from catch to delivery. Scombroid poisoning is caused by histamine buildup in certain fish (tuna, mackerel, mahi-mahi, bonito) when they are temperature abused. Histamine is not destroyed by cooking.

• B) Cooking fish within 24 hours of receiving in the restaurant, C) Cooking the fish to the proper temperature, D) Making sure kitchen workers wash their hands: While these are good food safety practices in general, they will not prevent scombroid poisoning if the fish has already developed histamine before it even reaches the restaurant.

Scombroid Prevention:

• Purchase susceptible fish from approved, reputable suppliers who maintain strict temperature control.
• Receive and store fish at 41°F (5°C) or below.
• Rapidly cool fish after cooking.

Continue to the next set of questions for the rest of the Purchasing, Receiving, and Storage section.